December 14, 2024
Overview: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) holds an esteemed position in the Indian banking sector, offering a challenging and rewarding career path for legal professionals.
One such prestigious position is that of a Grade B Legal Officer. The RBI Grade B Legal Officer Previous Year Question Paper helps immensely in preparing for this competitive exam.
In this article, we'll explore various aspects of the exam pattern, previous year papers, and sample questions to aid aspiring candidates in their preparation journey. So, let's begin!
Key Contents
The RBI Grade B exam is a gateway to a coveted career and understanding its pattern is crucial for success. The 2025 exam comprises three phases: Paper I, Paper II, and the Interview stage.
The selection process for the RBI Grade B Legal Officer includes Online and Offline Examinations, followed by an Interview. The examinations comprise both objective and descriptive type questions, detailed as follows:
Paper I - General Knowledge of Law
Paper II - English (Descriptive Type)
For those preparing for the exam, accessing RBI grade B previous year question papers is a critical step in your study plan. We have compiled a list of previous year papers for the Legal Officer position, which includes both General Knowledge of Law and English papers from various years.
These papers will provide you with a clear idea about the exam pattern and question trends, helping you to focus your preparation effectively.
Year | Paper | Download Link |
---|---|---|
2016 | Legal Officer Paper-I (General Knowledge of Law) | Download |
2016 | Legal Officer Paper-II (English) | Download |
2012 | Legal Officer Paper-I (General Knowledge of Law) | Download |
2012 | Legal Officer Paper-II (English) | Download |
2009 | Legal Officer Paper-I (General Knowledge of Law) | Download |
2009 | Legal Officer Paper-II (English) | Download |
2008 | Legal Officer Paper-I (General Knowledge of Law) | Download |
2008 | Legal Officer Paper-II (English) | Download |
These papers are an excellent resource to familiarize yourself with the type of questions asked in the exam and to gauge the level of difficulty. The RBI grade B previous year question papers are also invaluable for practicing and refining your exam-taking strategies.
Check: Books for RBI Legal Officer Grade B Exam 2025
1. What is the maximum number of members in the Lok Sabha as per the Indian Constitution?
a) 542
b) 552
c) 562
d) 572
2. Which constitutional amendment introduced the concept of Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India?
a) 101st
b) 102nd
c) 103rd
d) 104th
3. The term 'Secular' was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by which amendment?
a) 42nd Amendment
b) 44th Amendment
c) 46th Amendment
d) 48th Amendment
4. Who has the power to declare an area as a 'Scheduled Area' under the Constitution of India?
a) The President of India
b) The Parliament
c) The Prime Minister
d) The Supreme Court
5. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment of the Governor of a state?
a) Article 153
b) Article 154
c) Article 155
d) Article 156
1. Which principle is NOT part of Natural Justice?
a) Audi Alteram Partem
b) Nemo Judex in Causa Sua
c) Doctrine of Proportionality
d) Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel
2. The 'Doctrine of Pleasure' in the context of civil service is associated with which Article of the Indian Constitution?
a) Article 310
b) Article 311
c) Article 312
d) Article 313
3. Which writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an authority to perform a duty that it is bound to perform?
a) Habeas Corpus
b) Mandamus
c) Prohibition
d) Quo Warranto
4. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up under which Article of the Indian Constitution?
a) Article 323A
b) Article 323B
c) Article 324
d) Article 326
5. Which of the following is a feature of 'Administrative Discretion'?
a) Judicial Review
b) Rule of Law
c) Flexibility in Decision Making
d) Fixed Rules
1. The 'Literal Rule' of statutory interpretation focuses on:
a) The spirit of the law
b) The literal meaning of the words
c) The intention of the lawmaker
d) Precedents set by higher courts
2. Which rule of interpretation is used when two provisions of a statute conflict with each other?
a) Golden Rule
b) Mischief Rule
c) Harmonious Construction Rule
d) Rule of Ejusdem Generis
3. The principle of 'Ejusdem Generis' applies when:
a) A general term follows specific terms
b) The statute is ambiguous
c) The statute is clear and unambiguous
d) A specific term follows general terms
4. Under which rule of interpretation is the real intent of the legislature considered?
a) Literal Rule
b) Purposive Rule
c) Golden Rule
d) Mischief Rule
5. 'Expressio Unius Est Exclusio Alterius' is a Latin maxim meaning:
a) Express mention of one thing excludes others
b) The law does not concern itself with trifles
c) To speak is to exclude
d) An act does not make a person guilty unless there is intent
1. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the admissibility of electronic records?
a) Section 65B
b) Section 92
c) Section 17
d) Section 34
2. 'Res Gestae' is a principle related to:
a) Hearsay evidence
b) Documentary evidence
c) Direct evidence
d) Circumstantial evidence
3. The burden of proving that a case falls within any of the general exceptions is on:
a) The accused
b) The prosecution
c) The witness
d) The judge
4. In which cases is the opinion of an expert relevant?
a) Age of a person
b) Handwriting identification
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
5. 'Estoppel' is defined under which section of the Indian Evidence Act?
a) Section 115
b) Section 24
c) Section 45
d) Section 90
1. An agreement enforceable by law is a:
a) Contract
b) Promise
c) Proposal
d) All of the above
2. Which section of the Indian Contract Act deals with the revocation of proposals?
a) Section 5
b) Section 10
c) Section 25
d) Section 75
3. 'Quasi-contracts' are dealt with under which chapter of the Indian Contract Act?
a) Chapter V
b) Chapter VI
c) Chapter VII
d) Chapter IX
4. The doctrine of 'Frustration of Contract' is covered under which section?
a) Section 56
b) Section 32
c) Section 40
d) Section 73
5. A minor's agreement is:
a) Valid
b) Void
c) Voidable
d) Enforceable
1. The doctrine of 'Part Performance' is defined under which section of the Transfer of Property Act?
a) Section 53A
b) Section 108
c) Section 54
d) Section 100
2. 'Mortgage by conditional sale' is specified in which section?
a) Section 58(c)
b) Section 60
c) Section 54
d) Section 100
3. The right of 'Redemption' is associated with:
a) Lease
b) Mortgage
c) Gift
d) Exchange
4. Which section of the Transfer of Property Act deals with 'Sale'?
a) Section 54
b) Section 55
c) Section 100
d) Section 106
5. 'Lis Pendens' is a doctrine under which section of the Transfer of Property Act?
a) Section 52
b) Section 53
c) Section 54
d) Section 58
1. Which section of the Registration Act, 1908 deals with the time limit for presenting documents for registration?
a) Section 23
b) Section 24
c) Section 25
d) Section 26
2. Under the Registration Act, 1908, which document is not compulsorily registrable?
a) Gift deeds
b) Lease agreements for a year
c) Sale deeds
d) Mortgage deeds
3. What is the penalty for non-registration of a document that requires compulsory registration under the Registration Act, 1908?
a) Document becomes void
b) Fine up to Rs. 10,000
c) Imprisonment up to 3 months
d) Both a and b
4. Which of the following is true regarding the registration of wills under the Registration Act, 1908?
a) Compulsory for all wills
b) Optional for all wills
c) Compulsory if the will relates to immovable property
d) Not applicable to wills
5. Who is empowered to make rules under the Registration Act, 1908?
a) The President of India
b) The Parliament
c) The State Government
d) The Supreme Court
1. Which section of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 deals with the Res Judicata principle?
a) Section 10
b) Section 11
c) Section 12
d) Section 13
2. Under which section can a temporary injunction under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 be granted?
a) Section 94
b) Section 95
c) Section 151
d) Section 96
3. What is the maximum period for filing a suit for the specific performance of a contract?
a) 1 year
b) 3 years
c) 5 years
d) 12 years
4. Under which provision can a foreign judgment be enforced in India?
a) Section 13
b) Section 14
c) Section 44A
d) Section 47
5. Which Order of the CPC, 1908 deals with the deposition of witnesses?
a) Order 16
b) Order 17
c) Order 18
d) Order 19
1. What is the most crucial element of legal drafting?
a) Clarity
b) Length
c) Complexity
d) Ambiguity
2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of good legal drafting?
a) Conciseness
b) Ambiguity
c) Precision
d) Logical Structure
3. In legal drafting, the 'Plain Language' approach aims to:
a) Use complex legal terms
b) Make the document easily understandable
c) Increase the length of the document
d) Focus on legal jargon
4. Which of the following is not a recommended practice in legal drafting?
a) Using clear and concise language
b) Avoiding unnecessary repetition
c) Using long sentences to describe simple concepts
d) Ensuring legal accuracy
5. Effective legal drafting for contracts should always include:
a) A detailed description of penalties only
b) Ambiguous terms to allow flexibility
c) Clear definition of terms and conditions
d) Only general descriptions of obligations
Check: RBI Legal Officer Syllabus 2025
Practising with RBI Grade B Legal Officer Previous Year Question Papers is invaluable for several reasons:
Check: RBI Grade B Legal Officer Eligibility Criteria
Frequently Asked Questions
What is the RBI Grade B Legal Officer Exam?
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