Important CrPC Questions for Judiciary Preparation 2024

Q: What does the Section 93 of CrPC provides for?

Section 93 of CrPC provides for when a search warrant may be issued.

Q: Provisions for the search for persons wrongfully confined are provided under which Section?

Section 97 states the provisions for the search for persons wrongfully confined.

Q: When should a search warrant be issued?

<p>A search warrant can be issued in these cases; where the Court has reason to believe that a person will not produce the document as required by summoning, where such document or thing is not known to the Court to be in possession of any person, and where the Court considers that the purposes of any inquiry, trial, or another proceeding under this code will be served by a general search or inspection.</p>

Q: Endorsement on the warrant under section 71, what shall the state do?

<p>Endorsement on the warrant under section 71 talks about these - the number of sureties; the amount for which they are respectively bound; and the time at which he is to appear in the Court.</p>

Q: Under which section can an arrested person be searched?

Section 51 relates to the search or arrest of a person.

Author : Tanya Kaushal

September 3, 2024

Readers' Digest: Are you gearing up for the Judiciary Preparation 2024? Then, understanding the importance of tackling Important CrPC Questions for Judiciary Preparation 2024 is paramount.

Considering the significance of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) section in various upcoming judiciary exams, it becomes crucial to analyze its weightage and expected number of questions.

In the Delhi Judiciary preliminary examination, approximately 30 questions were asked, accounting for 15% of the total weightage. Moreover, the Chhattisgarh Civil Judge mains paper assigns a substantial weightage of 40 marks to CrPC.

By studying previous year's papers closely, one can anticipate around 15 commonly asked questions in the MP Civil Judge exam.

Additionally, the RJS exam typically includes 9-11 questions from the expected sections under the Bare Act of CrPC. Therefore, focusing on CRPC questions for judiciary preparation can significantly impact your rank.

When it comes to preparing CrPC notes for the judiciary exam, it is crucial to focus on the most important CrPC topics recommended by the toppers. These topics are considered significant for a thorough understanding of the subject and include the following:

1. Arrest and Bail: Familiarize yourself with provisions related to arrest, types of bail, and the criteria for granting bail.
2. Investigation and Chargesheets: Understand the investigation process, chargesheet filing, and the accused's rights during this stage.
3. Trial Procedure: Gain knowledge about the different stages of a criminal trial, including framing of charges, examination of witnesses, and recording of evidence.
4. Sentencing and Appeals: Comprehend the factors considered during sentencing and the procedure for filing appeals.
5. Special Provisions: Pay attention to special provisions under the CrPC, such as the rights of the accused, the role of the public prosecutor, and the powers of the police.

Focusing on these key topics can strengthen your CrPC preparation and increase your chances of success in the Indian judiciary exams.

Most Important Prelims Questions of Code of Criminal Procedure for Judiciary Exam Preparation

CrPC holds utmost significance in the Civil Judge exams. Knowing essential questions for the Judiciary Preliminary examination will add four golden stars to your preparation.

Read the article to stay updated with the critical CrPC questions for judiciary preparation.

Most Important Prelims Questions of Code of Criminal Procedure for Delhi Judiciary Exam 2024

Analyzing the previous year's trends, around 30 questions were asked in the preliminary examination of the Delhi Judiciary. So, the CrPC section holds 15% weightage in the Prelim exam.

Refer to important questions in the Code of Criminal Procedure for Judiciary Preparation of Delhi.

Question 1) Who may record any confession or a statement made by him during an investigation?

(a) Any senior police officer

(b) Judicial Magistrate having jurisdiction

(d) Any judicial magistrate

Explanation: According to the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) provisions, a confession or statement made by an individual during an investigation must be recorded by a Judicial Magistrate having jurisdiction over the matter. This ensures that the recording is done legally and appropriately under the supervision of a judicial authority.

Question 2) Compounding an offence under the provisions of the Code in a criminal case when the charge was framed results in:

(a) Acquittal of accused

(b) Discharge of accused

(d) Case filed only

Explanation: When an offence is compounded under the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), in a criminal case where the charge was framed, it leads to the discharge of the accused. Compounding refers to the settlement or resolution of the case between the parties involved, usually through a mutually agreed compromise.

Question 3) An inquest report must contain the following:

(a) Names of accused

(b) Apparent cause of death

(d) Details of the incident

Explanation: An inquest report prepared during the investigation of a suspicious or unnatural death must include the apparent cause of death. This report aims to determine the circumstances surrounding the death and provide initial insights into the cause of the deceased's demise.

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Question 4) Under section 428, the period of detention undergone by a convict cannot be set off during:

(a) Investigation of the case

(b) Trial of the case

(d) Another case

Explanation: According to Section 428 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), the period of detention undergone by a convict cannot be set off against another case. This means that the time spent in custody for one case cannot be considered a deduction from the sentence of another case.

Question 5) Under section 357A (2) CrPC, which authority is authorized to decide the quantum of compensation?

(a) Sessions judge

(b) Chief Judicial Magistrate

(d) State or district legal services authority

Explanation: As per Section 357A (2) of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), the state or district legal services authority is authorized to decide the quantum of compensation. These authorities play a crucial role in determining the appropriate compensation to be awarded to victims of crimes.

Question 6) A victim cannot file an appeal against any judgment passed by the Court:

(a) Where the Court acquits the accused.

(b) Where the court convicts for a lesser offence.

(d) Where the Court imposes an inadequate sentence.

Explanation: A victim does not have the right to file an appeal against a judgment passed by the court when the court acquits the accused. The right to appeal is typically available to the parties involved in the case, such as the prosecution or the accused, but not to the victim in cases of acquittal.

Question 7) Under section 313 of the Code, the purpose of examination of the accused is:

(a) To enable the accused personally to explain any circumstances appearing in the evidence against him

(b) To enable the accused to know his defence.

(d) All of the above

Explanation: The purpose of the examination of the accused under Section 313 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) is to enable the accused personally to explain any circumstances appearing in the evidence against him. It allows the accused to clarify or refute the evidence presented during the trial.

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Question 8) Where it appears to the Court that the accused do not have sufficient means to engage a pleader, the Court shall assign a pleader for his defence at the state's expense. This provision is in the following:

(a) Section 104

(b) Section 144

(d) Section 304

Explanation: Section 303 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) mentions the provision mentioned in the question. When the court determines that the accused does not have sufficient means to afford a lawyer, it is mandated to assign a pleader for the accused's defence, and the state bears the expenses of the same.

Question 9) Any public prosecutor or assistant public prosecutor in charge of a case may withdraw from the prosecution of any person before the judgment is pronounced. For this, he has to take consent to the following:

(a) Central government

(b) State government

(d) All of the three.

Explanation: To withdraw from the prosecution of any person before the judgment is pronounced, any public prosecutor or assistant public prosecutor in charge of a case must seek consent from the court. The court's permission is necessary to ensure the withdrawal does not adversely affect the proceedings.

Question 10) Under the criminal procedure code, 1973, who shall record the information of rape being given by a rape victim?

(a) Officer-in-charge of the police station

(b) Deputy superintendent of police

(d) Woman police officer or any woman officer

Explanation: According to the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) in India, the information about rape being given by a rape victim must be recorded by a woman police officer or any woman officer. This is done to provide a safe and supportive environment for the victim to share the details of the incident.

Most Important Questions of Code of Criminal Procedure for Chhattisgarh Judiciary Exam 2024

CrPC holds a significant weightage of 40 marks in the Mains paper of the Chhattisgarh Civil Judge exam. A good knowledge CrPC section is required in the Judgment Writing Paper of CGPCS J. Knowing important CRPC questions for judiciary preparation can boost your score incredibly.

Here are the most crucial past year questions from the Code of Criminal Procedure for Chhattisgarh Judiciary Preparation:

Question 1) Under CrPC, a magistrate first class may order to make a monthly allowance for the maintenance at the monthly rate of?

(a) Five hundred rupees

(b) Three thousand rupees

(d) As the Magistrate thinks fit

Explanation: According to the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), a magistrate's first class can determine the monthly maintenance allowance as appropriate based on the case's specific circumstances. No fixed amount is mentioned in the CrPC, allowing the magistrate to decide the monthly maintenance rate.

Question 2) Under CrPC, an application for plea bargaining can be filed by

(a) Accused

(b) Complainant

(d) Public prosecutor

Explanation: In accordance with the provisions of the CrPC, an application for plea bargaining can only be filed by the accused. Plea bargaining allows the accused to plead guilty to a lesser offence in exchange for a reduced sentence. It is a voluntary process initiated by the accused, seeking a mutually acceptable resolution with the prosecution.

Question 3) When the person who would otherwise be competent to compound an offence under section 320 of CrPC is dead, then

(a) Legal representative of such person as defined in the Code of criminal procedure. 1973 can compound the offence with the permission of the Court

(b) Any alive eyewitness can compound offence

(d) Legal representative of such person as defined in the Code of civil procedure. 1908. Can compound the. Offence with the consent of the Court

Explanation: In case the person who has the authority to compound an offence under section 320 of the CrPC is deceased, the legal representative of that person, as defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, can compound the offence with the permission of the Court. The legal representative steps in the deceased person's shoes and can exercise their authority in compounding the offence.

Question 4) Under section 41C of CrPC, the state government shall establish a police control room:

(a) Only at the district level

(b) Only at the state level

(d) At the state and district level

Explanation: Section 41C of the CrPC mandates the state government to establish a police control room. However, per the provision, establishing a police control room is required at both the state and district levels. This ensures effective coordination and response in emergency situations and enhances the overall functioning of the police force.

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Question 5) Which provision of CrPC deals with the power of revision of the High Court:

(a) Section 398

(b) Section 399

(d) Section 401

Explanation: The power of revision of the High Court is conferred by Section 401 of the CrPC. This provision empowers the High Court to exercise its revisional jurisdiction, allowing it to review and examine the legality, regularity, or correctness of any proceeding or order passed by the subordinate courts within its jurisdiction.

Question 6) Which section of CrPC defines cognizable offence?

(a) Section 2(a)

(b) Section 2(b)

(d) Section 2(d)

Explanation: Section 2(b) of the CrPC defines a cognizable offence. According to this section, a cognizable offence is an offence for which a police officer can arrest a person without a warrant and conduct an investigation without the need for prior authorization from a magistrate.

Also Read: Criminal Procedure Preparation Notes

Question 7) For the Code of criminal procedure, 1973, who from amongst the following may determine the language of each Court in the state other than the High Court?

(a) The High Court of the state

(b) The Supreme Court of India

(d) The legislative assembly of the state

Explanation: The determination of the language to be used in each Court in the state, other than the High Court, is the prerogative of the state government as per the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. The state government has the authority to prescribe the language or languages in which the proceedings of such courts will be conducted.

Question 8) In a summons case, when the accused appears or is brought before the Magistrate, it shall not be necessary to:

(a) State the particulars of the offence of which he is accused

(b) Ask whether he pleads guilty

(d) Frame a formal charge

Explanation: When the accused appears or is brought before the Magistrate in a summons case, it is unnecessary to frame a charge against the accused formally. Unlike in a warrant case, where a formal charge must be framed, in a summons case, the charge is generally read out to the accused, who are informed of the allegations against them.

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Question 9) If it appears to the Magistrate that the offence complained of is triable exclusively by the Court of the session, he, under section 202 CrPC, postpones the issue of process against the accused:

(a) Shall commit the case to the Court of session

(b) May direct an investigation to be made by a police officer

(d) Shall return the complaint for presentation before the Court of session

Explanation: As per section 202 of the CrPC, if the Magistrate thinks that the offence complained of is triable exclusively by the Court of Session, the Magistrate may choose to postpone the issue of process against the accused. Instead, the Magistrate may direct a police officer to investigate to gather the necessary evidence and submit a report before proceeding further with the case.

Question 10) A charge is framed by the Magistrate based on the following:

(a) Police report

(b) Statements recorded u/s. 161 CrPC

(d) Documents produced by the prosecution as well as the accused

Explanation: When framing a charge, the Magistrate considers the documents produced by both the prosecution and the accused. These documents may include statements recorded under Section 161 of the CrPC and any other relevant evidence or materials submitted by either party. The charge is framed based on carefully examining the available evidence and its compatibility with the offences alleged.

Most Important Prelims Questions of Code of Criminal Procedure for MP Judiciary Exam 2024

Based on an in-depth analysis of the past year's papers for the CRPC questions for judiciary preparation for the MP Civil Judge exam, you can expect about 15 questions for the CrPC section.

Read the previous year's Code of Criminal Procedure questions for MP Civil Judge Preparation.

Question 1) Section 436A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, provides for the grant of bail to an accused pending trial if:

(a) He has undergone detention for a one-fourth period of imprisonment specified for the offence for which he is being tried

(b) He has undergone detention for a one-third period of imprisonment specified for the offence for which he is being tried.

(c) He has undergone detention for a one-half period of imprisonment specified for the offence for which he is being tried.

(d) (a) and (b) above

Explanation: Section 436A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, allows for the grant of bail to an accused who has already undergone detention for a period equivalent to one-half of the imprisonment specified for the offence being tried. This provision recognizes the importance of ensuring that an accused person is not subjected to undue incarceration pending trial.

Question 2) Which of the following sections of the criminal procedure code, 1973 provides that "no judge or magistrate shall try any case in which he is personally interested"?

(a) Sec. 478

(b) Sec. 477

(d) Sec. 481

Explanation: Section 479 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, states that no judge or magistrate shall try any case he is personally interested in. This provision is essential to uphold the principles of fairness, impartiality, and justice in the judicial process by avoiding conflicts of interest.

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Question 3) Under the criminal procedure code, 1973, what is the period of limitation prescribed for taking cognizance of an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding 3 years?

(a) 3 years

(b) 2 years

(d) No limit on the period prescribed

Explanation: Under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, the period of limitation prescribed for taking cognizance of an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term exceeding 3 years is 5 years. This means that the relevant authorities must initiate legal proceedings within 5 years from the date of the commission of the offence.

Question 4) Under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, if a Police Officer arrests a person without a warrant, whether such person has been admitted to bail or otherwise, the officer-in-charge of the police station shall report to:

(a) The District Magistrate only

(b) The sub-divisional Magistrate only

(d) The Judicial Magistrate having jurisdiction

Explanation: Under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, if a Police Officer arrests a person without a warrant, regardless of whether that person has been admitted to bail or not, the officer-in-charge of the police station shall report the arrest to the District Magistrate. If the District Magistrate directs, the report can also be made to the Sub-divisional Magistrate.

Question 5) Recently, in one of the following cases, the Supreme Court has given directions for the medical treatment of the victim of an acid attack.

(a) State of MP vs Madan Lal

(b) Laxmi vs Union of India

(d) None of the above

Explanation: In the case of Laxmi vs Union of India, the Supreme Court has given directions for the medical treatment of the victim of an acid attack. This landmark case has played a significant role in recognizing the rights of acid attack victims and establishing guidelines for their medical care and rehabilitation.

Question 6) Which of the following statements is wrong:

(a) Oath may be administered to an accused before her examination under section 313 CrPC

(b) Accused can refuse to answer any question when he is examined under section 313 CrPC

(d) Evidence that incriminates the accused has to be put to them by the Court.

Explanation: The correct statement is (c) - "The Court can put Accused in any question at any trial stage." The accused cannot be compelled to answer any question during the trial. However, they can remain silent and refuse to answer questions that may incriminate them.

Question 7) Under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, what is the effect of a trial conducted in the wrong place?

(a) Vitiate itself

(b) Vitiate if caused the failure of justice

(d) Is to be referred to Session Judge

Explanation: If a trial is conducted in the wrong place under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, it will vitiate the proceedings if it is established that it has caused a failure of justice. In such cases, the trial may be deemed invalid, and appropriate legal remedies may be pursued.

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Question 8) Under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, is an accused a competent witness in his defence?

(a) On his request in writing

(b) On mere oral request

(d) With the leave of CMJ only

Explanation: Under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, an accused is a competent witness in his defence if he makes a written request to the court expressing his willingness to give evidence. In such cases, the accused can provide testimony and present evidence to support his defence.

Question 9) Which Code of Criminal Procedure section protects the Armed Forces members from arrest?

(a) Section 41

(b) Section 45

(d) Section 50

Explanation: Section 45 of the Code of Criminal Procedure protects Armed Forces members from arrest while performing their official duties. This section ensures that Armed Forces members are shielded from unnecessary interruptions and can carry out their responsibilities without fear of arbitrary arrest.

Question 10) Under section 216 of CrPC, the Court has the power to:

(a) Add to the charge(s) already framed

(b) Alter the charge(s) already framed

(d) Add to and alter the charge both

Explanation: Under section 216 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), the Court has the power to add to and alter the already framed charge. This provision allows the Court to modify the charges during the trial proceedings if it deems necessary based on the evidence and circumstances of the case.

Most Important Prelims Questions of Code of Criminal Procedure for Haryana Judiciary Exam 2024

The Code of Criminal Procedure can boost your rank in Haryana Judiciary. There is a separate Paper 2 of the Criminal Law in Haryana Civil Judge exam.

Review the most critical questions in the Code of Criminal Procedure for Haryana Judiciary Preparation.

Question 1) For constituting double jeopardy,

(a) The person should have been tried by a court of competent jurisdiction

(b) He should have been convicted

(d) None of these

Explanation: Double jeopardy refers to the principle that an individual cannot be tried or punished twice for the same offence. For double jeopardy to be constituted, the person must have been acquitted, meaning that they have been previously tried for the offence and found not guilty. Option (a) is not correct because the jurisdiction of the court does not play a role in determining double jeopardy. Option (b) is incorrect because a conviction would mean the person has already been punished, not subjected to double jeopardy.

Question 2) A police officer may arrest somebody accused of an offence.

(a) To prevent such a person from committing any further offence

(b) For proper investigation of the case

(d) For all the above reasons

Explanation: A police officer can arrest someone accused of an offence to prevent the person from committing further offences, for proper investigation of the case, and to prevent tampering with evidence. All of these reasons are valid grounds for making an arrest.

Question 3) For recording a confession, the Magistrate should

(a) Get that person arrested

(b) Summon the complainant

(d) Inform such a person that he is not bound to make a confession

Explanation: Before recording a confession, the Magistrate should inform the person about the accusation made against them. This ensures that the person is aware of the specific allegations and can make an informed decision regarding confessing. Option (a) is incorrect because the Magistrate does not need to get the person arrested for recording a confession. Option (b) is irrelevant as summoning the complainant is unrelated to recording a confession. Option (d) is also incorrect because the person should be informed that they are not bound to confess.

Question 4) Under section 142 of CrPC, a magistrate is empowered to issue:

(a) Injunction pending inquiry

(b) Show cause notice

(d) Order for local inspection

Explanation: Section 142 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) empowers a magistrate to issue an order for local inspection. This allows the magistrate to visit and examine a particular place or location relevant to a case to gather evidence or better understand the circumstances.

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Question 5) Which of the following convictions is appealable?

(a) Conviction by a high court in a case wherein the accused pleaded guilty.

(b) Conviction in petty cases by the High Court with a sentence of 4 months imprisonment.

(d) Conviction in petty cases passed by a first-class magistrate only with a fine of one hundred rupees.

Explanation: Conviction in petty cases by the Court of the session with a sentence of 4 months imprisonment is appealable. In this scenario, the accused can appeal the conviction before a higher court. The other options mentioned do not specify the possibility of appeal.

Question 6) In which of the following trial hearings of the accused on sentence is not necessary for CrPC?

(a) Trial before the sessions court

(b) Trial of warrant case

(d) Trial of exceptional cases

Explanation: In a trial of a summons case, the accused is not required to be present during the sentencing. The CrPC (Criminal Procedure Code) allows the court to pronounce the sentence in the absence of the accused in a summons case. However, in trials before the sessions court (option a), trial of a warrant case (option b), and trial of exceptional cases (option d), the presence of the accused during the sentencing is necessary.

Question 7) Which of the following sections of CrPC provides that Court not alter judgment after signing on to it?

(a) Sec. 360

(b) Sec. 361

(d) Sec. 462

Explanation: Section 362 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) states that once the court's presiding officer signs a judgment, it cannot be altered or reviewed. This provision ensures the finality and conclusiveness of the judgment.

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Question 8) Which one of the following sections of the CrPC examination of a witness in the absence of the accused can be done under

(a) Sec. 299

(b) Sec. 321

(d) Sec. 301

Explanation: Section 301 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) allows the examination of a witness in the absence of the accused. This provision enables the court to examine witnesses even if the accused is absent during the proceedings.

Question 9) Under the criminal procedure code, the victim may appeal

(a) Against an order imposing inadequate compensation

(b) Against an order for convicting for a lesser offence

(d) All of these

Explanation: Under the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), the victim can appeal against an order imposing inadequate compensation, an order convicting for a lesser offence, and an acquittal. The victim has the right to seek appropriate legal remedies in these situations.

Question 10) Under the criminal procedure code, which factor is irrelevant for considering bail?

(a) Possibility of absconding the accused

(b) Gravity of offence

(d) All of these

Explanation: The economic status of the informant victim is irrelevant when considering bail under the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC). Bail decisions are typically based on factors such as the possibility of the accused absconding, the gravity of the offence, and other relevant considerations. However, the economic status of the informant victim does not play a role in determining bail eligibility.

Most Important Prelims Questions of Code of Criminal Procedure for Rajasthan Judiciary Exam 2024

You can expect around 9-11 questions from the Code of Criminal Procedure in the RJS exam. Therefore, CRPC questions for judiciary preparation can push your rank.

The most critical questions in the CrPC for Rajasthan Judiciary Preparation are below.

Question 1) The trial relates to an offence under section 376 IPC shall, as far as possible, be completed within a period of

(a) Two months from the date of filing of the charge sheet.

(b) Six months from the date of filing of the charge sheet.

(d) None of these.

Explanation: According to Section 309(1) of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), the trial of an offence under section 376 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which pertains to rape, should ideally be completed within one year from the date of filing the charge sheet. This provision aims to ensure swift justice in cases of sexual offences.

Question 2) No person shall be appointed as a public prosecutor for the district unless his name appears in the panel of names prepared by

(a) Sessions Judge

(b) High Court

(d) Superintendent of Police

Explanation: The panel of names for appointing a public prosecutor for the district is prepared by the High Court. The High Court has the authority to select and maintain a panel of eligible candidates for appointment as public prosecutors to ensure competent legal representation in criminal cases at the district level.

Question 3) The main characteristic of the Code of Criminal Procedure is

(a) Empowerment of an executive magistrate with "judicial" power

(b) Separation of the legislature from the executive

(d) Separation of revenue work from executive

Explanation: The main characteristic of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) is the separation of the executive from the Judiciary. The CrPC outlines the procedural aspects of criminal law, including the powers and functions of various authorities involved in the criminal justice system. By separating the executive (responsible for law enforcement) from the Judiciary (responsible for adjudication), the CrPC ensures a fair and impartial administration of justice.

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Question 4) Classes of Criminal Courts are Section

(a) Session court

(b) Executive Magistrate

(d) All of these

Explanation: The classes of Criminal Courts include the Session Court, Executive Magistrate, and Judicial Magistrate. These courts have different jurisdictions and powers based on the nature and severity of their criminal cases. Each court class plays a specific role in the criminal justice system, ensuring the proper dispensation of justice at different stages of the legal process.

Question 5) Population for metropolitan areas should be more than

(a) One million

(b) Two million

(d) 0.2 million

Explanation: The population should generally be more than one million to be considered a metropolitan area. Metropolitan areas are characterized by their large population size, urban development, and socio-economic significance. This criterion helps distinguish metropolitan areas from smaller urban areas or towns.

Question 6) Which section defines a Special Judicial Magistrate?

(a) Section 12

(b) Section 13

(d) Section 15

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Question 7) Which of the following sentences may be passed by a second-class state?

(a) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years

(b) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year

d) Only a fine not exceeding five thousand rupees

Explanation: A second-class state may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year, as specified under Section 32 of the CrPC. The duration of the sentence is determined based on the nature and severity of the offence committed.

Question 8) Which of the following statements is wrong? If a person forcibly resists Endeavour to arrest the police officer, may......?

(a) Use all the means necessary to effect the arrest

(b) Cause the death of such a person irrespective of the offence he has committed

(d) Cause the death of such a person accused of culpable homicide not amounting to murder

Explanation: The statement in option (b) is incorrect. Suppose a person forcibly resists an endeavour to arrest made by a police officer. In that case, the officer may use all means necessary to effect the arrest, but causing the death of such a person is not justified unless it is in response to a situation where the person poses a threat of causing death or grievous bodily harm to the officer or others, as stated in Section 46 of the CrPC.

Question 9) If a person in lawful custody escapes, a person from whose custody he ran may immediately pursue and arrest him.

(a) Within the local limits of the police station concerned

(b) Within the local limits of the district

(d) In any place in India.

Explanation: If a person in lawful custody escapes, a person from whose custody he ran may immediately pursue and arrest him in any place in India, as per Section 47 of the CrPC. The person with lawful custody can apprehend the escapee without geographical limitations.

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Question 10) Point out the incorrect statement.

(a) In a cognizable offence, any police officer may arrest any person without an order from a Magistrate and a warrant.

(b) A private person may arrest or cause to be controlled any person committing a cognizable offence.

(c) An Executive magistrate may arrest an offender when any offence is committed in his presence and within his jurisdiction.

(d) None of the above is correct.

Explanation: The statement in option (c) is incorrect. An Executive Magistrate does not have the power to arrest an offender when an offence is committed in his presence and within his jurisdiction. The power of arrest lies with the police officers as defined under Section 41 of the CrPC. Executive Magistrates primarily exercise administrative and executive functions, and their role in the criminal justice system differs from that of the police.

Most Important Mains Questions of Code of Criminal Procedure for Judiciary Exam Preparation 2024

4-5 questions of 4 marks each are asked from the Code of Criminal Procedure in the Judiciary Mains exam. The CRPC questions for judiciary preparation can give an upper hand.

Take note of the following questions of CrPC to ace the Judiciary Mains Exam.

Most Important Mains Questions of Code of Criminal Procedure for MP Judiciary Exam 2024

On average, 4-5 questions are asked from the CrPC section in the Mains paper Madhya Pradesh Civil Judge exam. This topic holds a weightage of 16-20 marks which is more than enough to mark a difference in your final rank.

Here are the most crucial past year questions from the Code of Criminal Procedure for MP Judiciary Preparation.

Question 1) For what offences/ or accused persons is Plea Bargaining under Chapter XXI-A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 applicable?

Question 2) Describe the guidelines provided under Section 265C of the Code of Criminal Procedure for mutually satisfactory disposition of Criminal cases based on P]ea Bargaining.

Question 3) Distinguish between cognizable and non-cognizable offences.

Question 4) Describe the powers of Criminal Courts to inflict punishments.

Question 5) Frame the charge and write a judgment based on the 40 allegations and evidence given hereunder by analyzing the evidence and considering the relevant provisions of the concerning law.

Most Important Mains Questions of Code of Criminal Procedure for Delhi Judiciary Exam 2024

Refer to the most critical questions in the Code of Criminal Procedure for Delhi Judiciary Preparation.

Question 1) Can a Sessions Judge make provision for the disposal of any urgent application by the Chief Judicial Magistrate of the district? In such a case, would the Magistrate be deemed to have his jurisdiction to deal with such an application?

Question 2) Is an Assistant Sessions Judge subordinate to the Sessions Judge of that Sessions Division? Give reasons for your answer and mention the relevant provision, if any.

Question 3) What provisions relate to the Public Prosecutors and Assistant Public Prosecutors under the Criminal Procedure Code? Whether a police officer may be appointed as an assistant public prosecutor?

Question 4) Define and distinguish between the following:

Bailable and non-bailable offences
Cognizable and non-cognizable offences
Compoundable and Non-compoundable Cases
Summons Case and Warrant Case

Most Important Mains Questions of Code of Criminal Procedure for Haryana Judiciary Exam 2024

Go through the most critical questions in the Code of Criminal Procedure for Haryana Judiciary Preparation.

Question 1) Discuss the Court's jurisdiction in cases of juveniles as provided under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973.

Question 2) What provisions have been laid by the Cr.P.C. (Amendment) Act 2005 regarding the Directorate of Prosecution? Discuss.

Question 3) Describe the Constitution and sub-ordination of Criminal Courts. What are the provisions about it in CRPC?

Question 4) Write a short note on the followings:

Judicial proceedings
Police Report
Pleader
Public Prosecutor

Most Important Mains Questions of Code of Criminal Procedure for UP Judiciary Exam 2024

The most critical questions in the Code of Criminal Procedure for UP Judiciary Mains Preparation are below:

Question 1) Explain the law under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, relating to a sentence in case of conviction of several offences at a trial.
Question 2) Describe the circumstances when a police officer may arrest a person without an order from a Magistrate and a warrant.
Question 3) What are the provisions in the Code for passing a sentence of imprisonment in default of a fine?
Question 4) Define and distinguish between the followings:

Inquiry and Trial
Inquiry and Investigation
Complaint and Information
Acquittal and Discharge
Complaint and First Information Report

Conclusion

In conclusion, mastering the Important CrPC Questions for Judiciary Preparation 2024 is crucial for aspiring candidates. These questions are valuable for honing your knowledge and enhancing your chances of success in the judiciary exams. To summarize the key takeaways:

Familiarize yourself with the important sections under the Bare Act.
Focus on topics suggested by toppers, likely to carry significant weightage in the exams.
Pay attention to the most expected sections of the Criminal Procedure Code 1973.
Gain a comprehensive understanding of the highlights and intricacies of the CrPC.
Regular practice and revision of these questions will boost your confidence and overall performance.

By incorporating these key takeaways into your preparation, you'll be well-equipped to confidently tackle the challenges of the judiciary exams. Best of luck!