MH CET Law Previous Year Question Paper PDF: 3 & 5 Year LLB

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Maharashtra Common Entrance Test (MH CET) Law will be conducted for the 5-year LL.B. program in May.

Neglecting the MH CET Law Previous Year Question Paper is like reaching a dead end. Below are some reasons you should know about practising the previous year's paper:

• Understand the MH CET Law 2025 exam pattern and marking scheme
• Evaluate the level of preparation
• Manage time efficiently during the examination
• Practice the questions which are frequently asked in the exams 
• Gain the confidence to tackle the questions in the examination 
• Identify the weak areas and practice them

MH CET Law Previous Year Question Paper Download Link

The best and the most excellent way to study is to practice as many MH CET Law question papers as possible with answer PDFs.

By practising the previous year's question paper, students will get an idea of the difficulty level of the test and the type of questions asked in the test.

• Most of you face problems gathering the Maharashtra Common Entrance Test (MH CET) Law previous year's papers to practice. We are here to provide you with the best question paper from the previous year on the MH CET Law for the undergraduate and integrated undergraduate programs of the last 10 years. 
• The Maharashtra Common Entrance Test (MH CET) Law for admission in the 5-year and 3-year LLB Programs previous year's question papers are available at the official website of the State Common Entrance Test Cell Maharashtra, i.e. https://cetcell.mahacet.org. 
• You should attempt as many sample papers, model test papers, etc. By practising these papers, you will also get an idea of the weightage of each topic.
• Here, we are also providing the MH Common Entrance Test (MH CET) Law solved papers in English medium only. So it will be easier for every candidate to solve the question paper in English only.

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If you are pursuing the 5 year course, so must refer to the MH CET Law 5-year question paper PDF:

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Importance of MH CET Law Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper

For the students participating in the MH Common Entrance Test (MH CET) Law for admission in the 3 and 5-year LLB programs. Practising the previous year's question papers will be beneficial for the Common Law entrance test preparation.

In previous years' papers, various advantages have been identified for solving the MH Common Entrance Test (MH CET) Law. Some of the critical advantages are mentioned below:

• Practising the MH Common Entrance Test (MH CET) Law previous year's question paper will help to analyze the MH CET Law Exam Pattern and the level of the examination that followed the test.
• By practising the MH Common Entrance Test (MH CET) Law previous year's question paper, you will learn about the trend followed by the exam official while preparing the question paper for the final examination.
• The students will learn about the MH CET Law Syllabus 2025 and the questions asked in the examination.
• The practice of the previous year's paper will help you improve your speed and accuracy in the MH common entrance examination Law.
• After solving the previous year's question paper, you will also learn about the time-consuming and non-time-consuming topics. This will help you create your own preparation strategy to crack the exam easily and correctly.
• The questions from the previous year's question papers help the students practise with the bonafide material already in the previous year's law entrance examination.

Sample Questions from MH CET Law Previous Year Question Paper

Direction (Question 1): Four alternative summaries are given in the text. Choose the correct option that captures the essence of the text.

How we see the world and relate to others is intrinsically connected to our own values that govern how we decide to live. However, the influence of fashion consumerism, pop culture, broken homes, social unrest, and the media is all-pervasive. For many people, teachers and students alike, this influence goes unquestioned. If successfully taught at this level, critical thinking becomes the antidote for individual and social illiteracy. Critical thinking should constitute an indivisible part of the overall educational process for the authors. Facione (1995) comments, 'Critical thinking lies at the root of civilization. It is a cornerstone in the journey of humankind. It is taking from beastly savagery to global sensitivity.

Supporting the development of these skills involves reflective teaching and learning, which is highly complex and which some students may find difficult or interpret as a weakness on the part of the teacher."

But in the long run, patience on the part of the teacher will develop students who can view old or new material from a variety of sources through new eyes, using their skills to define their own stance and express it, often better in their second language, with open-minded confidence.

1. The worldview of the human being today 18 influenced by many things. Critical thinking cannot be taught as it involves reflective teaching and could be misunderstood.
2. Critical thinking must be part of an individual's education, but it is a difficult concept because it very often reflects a teacher as a dominating individual.
3. Critical thinking is an important aspect of an individual's literacy level and social know-how. It is part of civilization and eventually leads to global sensitivity. Students can look at the information in a variety of ways.
4.  Reflective teaching is another aspect of initial thinking, and it could lead to individual and social illiteracy.

Answer: (3). Critical thinking is an important aspect of an individual's literacy level and social know-how. It is part of civilization and eventually leads to global sensitivity. Students can look at the information in a variety of ways.

Direction (Question 2 - Question 3): Answer the question based on the following information. Indicate which of the statements given with that particular question, 1s consistent with the information in the passage below.

It is now recognized by modern science that the universe at the subatomic level does not have solid material objects but consists of only wavelike patterns which represent probabilities of interconnections between other interconnections, all constituting them an inseparable web of interrelationships constituting the entire universe. Fritij of Capra views the universe not as 'an assemblage of independent parts' but as a dynamic web of interrelated events in which each part of the web determines the structure of the whole. Geoffrey Chew views such inter-penetrating and interdependent relationships in the universe in terms of a bootstrap theory, which implies that all forces in the universe are inseparably linked, every part affects every other part, and the whole world is held together so to 54y by bootstraps. Avid Boham refers to 4 holographic concepts which imply not only that every part is connected with every other part within the whole but also that, in a sense, each part contains the whole. This, according to David Bohm, recognizes the undivided wholeness of the entire universe instead of the classical idea of the analysability of the world into separately and independently existent and independently existent parts.

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2. Choose the appropriate option.

1. There are many solid material objects in the universe.
2. The entire universe has a web of inter-relationships.
3. The universe comprises several independent parts.
4. These independent parts determine the structure of the web.

Answer: (2) The entire universe has a web of inter-relationship.

3. Choose the appropriate option.

1. The holographic theory speaks of the exclusiveness of each part.
2. The world can be analyzed into separate independent parts.
3. The classical idea recognizes the concept of wholeness.
4. The bootstrap theory speaks of interdependent relationships.

Answer: (4) The bootstrap theory speaks of interdependent relationships.

Question 4: Which among the following is the author of the book “Off the Bench”?

1. Mr Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer
2. Mr Justice A. R. Lakshman
3. Mr Justice J. S. Verma
4. Mr Justice Y. V. Chandrachud

Answer: (1) Mr Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer

Question 5: By which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts the Right to Education is made a Fundamental Right?

1. 84th
2. 86th
3. 81st
4. 83rd

Answer: (2) 86th

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Question 6: Legal Principles:

1. The doctrine of pleasure owes its origin to common law. The rule in England was that a civil servant could hold his office during the pleasure of the crown, and the service would be terminated any time the crown wished. The same rule is applied in India.
2. Except as expressly provided by the constitution, every person who is a member of a defence service or a civil service of the union or an all-Indian service or holds any post connected with defence or any civil post under the Union holds office during the pleasure of the President, and every person who is a member of a civil service of a State or holds any civil post under a State holds office during the pleasure of the Governor of the State.
3. The procedure laid down in Article 311 is intended to assure, first, a measure of security of tenure to government servants covered by the Article and, secondly, to provide certain safeguards against arbitrary dismissal or removal of a government servant or reduction to a lower rank.
4. Where there is an infringement of Article 311, the orders passed by the disciplinary authority are video ab initio and, in the eye of the law, no more than a piece of waste paper and the government servant will be deemed to have continued in service or the case of reduction in rank, in his previous post throughout.
5. A reasonable opportunity for a hearing must be given to the government servant. Further, no order of dismissal or removal can be made by an authority subordinate to the appointing authority.

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Factual Situation: Rahul was appointed to the civil services after appearing for the qualification exam. He was appointed as Tahsildar by the Collector. He is sincere and hard-working, and some people in his department do not like him and always try to plot against him. Rahul was very confident about his work and hoped to get a promotion soon. One day, the department laid a trap as a result of which allegations of bribery were made against Rahul. The charges against him aggrieved Rahul. The department initiated disciplinary proceedings against him. He was not heard in the disciplinary proceeding. As a result of this, he was suspended from his post by a Sub-Divisional Magistrate.

He challenged his suspension as he contended that he was not allowed to present his case; therefore, the suspension was arbitrary and video ab initio. Decide the legality of his suspension.

1. The suspension is valid as it does not fall in the category of dismissal and, therefore, is not subject to Article 311.
2. The suspension is void as Rahul was not allowed to hear before the disciplinary committee.
3. The suspension is void as Rahul was suspended by an officer subordinate to his appointing officer.
4. The suspension is valid as Rahul is a civil servant who holds the post at the pleasure of the Governor and, therefore, can be removed at any time.

Answer: (1) The suspension is valid as it does not fall in the category of dismissal and, therefore, is not subject to Article 311.

Question 7: If x⁴ + x- ⁴ = 2207, (x > 0), then the value of (x – 2) (x – 3) (x – 4) (x – 5) is:

1. 77
2. 99
3. 89
4. 11

Answer: (2) 99

Explanation:  I think you know that

=) x + 1/x = N

=) x² + 1/x² = N² - 2 = K

=) x⁴ + 1/x⁴ = K² - 2

This question have to go reverse, so see below

 =) x⁴ + 1/x⁴ = 2207

=) x⁴ + 1/x⁴ = 2207 = N² - 2

=) x² + 1/x² = N

=) x⁴ + 1/x⁴ = 2207 + 2 = N²

=) x⁴ + 1/x⁴ = 2209 = N²

So, N² = 2209

N = 47

=) x + 1/x = K

So,

=) x² + 1/x² = N = 47 = K² - 2 ----- equation no. 1

Let us evaluate equation no. 1

=) x² + 1/x² = N = 47 = K² - 2

=) x² + 1/x² = N = 47 + 2 = K²

=) x² + 1/x² = N = 49 = K²

So, K = 7

And x² + 1 = 7x

=) x² - 7x = -1 --------- equation no. 2

Let us see the question now

=) (x – 2) (x – 3) (x – 4) (x – 5)

=) (x – 2) (x – 5) (x – 3) (x – 4)

=) (x² - 7x + 10) (x² - 7x + 12)

Now put the value of x² - 7x from equation no. 2

=) (- 1 + 10) (- 1 + 12)

=) (9) (11)

=) 9 x 11 = 99

Question 8: When will a sum double at 8% per annum simple interest?

1. 12 years
2. 10 years
3. 12 ½ years
4. 10 ½ years
5. None of these

Answer: (3) 12 ½ year

Explanation:

To give: The rate of simple interest is 8%

To find: At what time the principal amount will be doubled?

Solution: 

First, we will convert percentages into a fraction

So,

5% = 1/20

10% = 1/10

8% = 2/25

When you have converted percentages into a fraction

It means 

That 8% = 2 / 25 

As mentioned above, if the interest rate is given in percentage and we have converted that into a fraction, then the numerator will be assumed as the interest amount. The denominator will be assumed as the principal amount.

So, in this case,

The rate of interest is 8 %, which is 2 / 25.

So this means that 2 is the interest amount, and 25 will be the principal amount.

This means that if you have invested Rs. 25, after 1 year, you will get Rs. 2 as interest earned.

So, now we have to find at what time the money which is invested will be doubled. This means when you will get that much interest that will equal the invested money.

Now, we will calculate the time in how many years the invested money is doubled.

⇒ Invested money = interest earned per annum X ‘n’ number of times

⇒ 25 = 2 x n

 ⇒ n = 25 / 2

⇒ n = 12.5 years

⇒ n = 12 ½ years

So, in 12 ½ years, the money invested will be doubled when the interest earned at an annual rate of 8%.

OR 

We can calculate time by one more method i.e.

Let the sum be Rs. 100

It is given in the question that the amount is double the sum

So, 

The amount be Rs. 200

⇒ Simple Interest = Amount - Principal 

⇒ Simple Interest = 200 - 100

⇒ Simple Interest = Rs. 100

Now, 

⇒Time = (100 x Simple Interest / Principal x Rate of Interest)

⇒ Time = (100 x SI / P x R)

⇒ Time = (100 x 100 / 100 x 8)

⇒ Time = 100 / 8

⇒ Time = 25 / 2 years

⇒ Time = 12 ½ years

Therefore, in 12 ½ years, the sum will be doubled.

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Direction (Question 9 - Question 13): In each of the following questions, a statement is followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something that is supposed to be taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. 

Answer: 

(a). If only assumption I is implicit. 

(b). If only assumption II is implicit. 

(c). If either assumption I or II is implicit. 

(d). If neither assumption I nor II is implicit. 

(e). If both assumptions I and II are implicit. 

9. Statement: It is not true that the mightiest superpower always wins wars and gets accolades from other countries. 

Assumptions: 

1. Winners are sometimes admired and appreciated. 
2. Winners are occasionally criticized. 

Answer: (e). If both assumptions I and II are implicit. 

Explanation:

I is implicit as the statement says winners do not "always" get accolades. This means sometimes they do get accolades. II is implicit as it is the cause of the statement.

10. Statement: Nobody can predict how long our country will take to contain unfortunate and disastrous terrorist activities. 

Assumptions: 

1. It is impossible to put an end to terrorist activities. 
2. Efforts to control terrorist activities are on. 

Answer: (b).  If only assumption II is implicit. 

Explanation: 

I is not implicit. It is not impossible. The statement has an optimistic tone that the war will end eventually. II is implicit. Efforts are on. Then only war will end.

11. Statement: Wars must be discouraged vehemently, even though most victims might have been a nuisance to peace-loving people. 

Assumptions: 

1. Some people create problems for peace-loving people.
2. Wars kill the majority of wicked people. 

Answer: (a).  If only assumption I is implicit.

Explanation:

I is implicit, the reason for the statement. II is not implicit because the statement does not discuss the type of people killed in the war.

12. Statement: In the recently imposed war, global public opinion was dishonoured by the economically strong and scientifically advanced superpower. 

Assumptions: 

1. Superpowers need not take any heed of global public opinion. 
2. Global public opinion should have been against the imposition of war. 

Answer: (b). If only assumption II is implicit. 

Explanation:

I is not implicit, the statement uses the word "any", it is an extreme assumption, so I do not implicit. II is implicit because global public opinion was against the war.

13. Statement: Wars must be discouraged vehemently, even though most victims might have been a nuisance to peace-loving people.

Assumptions: 

1. Innocent people are also killed in wars. 
2. Vehement opposition to wars may have some desirable impact. 

Answer: (e). If both assumptions I and II are implicit. 

Explanation:

I is implicit because it is a known fact. II is implicit because this is the reason for saying that war must be discouraged.

Direction (Question 14 - Question 18): A statement is given in each of the following questions, followed by two conclusions.

Answer:

(a). If only the Conclusion I follow.

(b). If only conclusion II follows.

(c). If either I or II follows.

(d). If neither I nor II follows.

(e). If both I and II follow.

14. Statement:

The distance of 900 km by road between Bombay and Jafra will be reduced to 280 km by sea. This will lead to a saving of Rs. 7.92 crores per annum on fuel.

Conclusions:

1. Transportation by sea is cheaper than that by road. 
2. Fuel must be saved to the greatest extent. 

Answer: (b). If only conclusion II follows.

Explanation: 

According to the statement, sea transport is cheaper than road transport in the case of a route from Bombay to Jafra, but not in all cases. So, in conclusion, I do not follow. The statement stresses the saving of fuel. So, conclusion II follows. 

15. Statement:

A good voice is a natural gift, but one has to keep practising to improve and excel in music. 

Conclusion: 

1. Natural gifts need nurturing and care. 
2. Even though your voice is not good, you can keep practising. 

Answer: (a). If only the Conclusion I follow.

Explanation: 

I follow directly from the given statement. However, II is unrelated to the given statement and does not follow.

16. Statement:

Domestic demand has been increasing faster than the production of indigenous crude oil.

Conclusions: 

1. Crude oil must be imported. 
2. Domestic demand should be reduced. 

Answer: (c). If either I or II follows.

Explanation: 

The statement mentions that demand for oil is increasing faster than production. So, either the demand must be reduced or oil must be imported to cope with the increasing demand. Thus, either I or II follows.

17. Statement:

All organized people find time for rest. Sunita, despite her hectic schedule, finds time for rest. 

Conclusions: 

1. Sunita is an organized person. 
2. Sunita is an industrious person. 

Answer: (e).  If both I and II follow.

Explanation: 

Sunita has a hectic schedule. This means that she is industrious. But still, she finds time for rest. This means that she is an organized person. So, both I and II follow.

18. Statements: 

This book, 'Z', is the only book that focuses on the problem of poverty in India between 1950 and 1980. 

Conclusions: 

1950. There was no question of poverty in India before 1950.
1951. No other book deals with poverty in India from 1950 to 1980.

Answer: (b). If only conclusion II follows.

Explanation:

The phrase 'only book' in the statement makes II implicit. However, nothing about the state of poverty before 1950 can be deduced from the statement. So, I do not follow.

Question: In each of the following questions, assuming the given statements to be true, find out which 'A % B' of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true

Answer (a) If only Conclusion I is true.

Answer (b) If only Conclusion II is true.

Answer (c). If either Conclusion I or II is true. 

Answer (d). If neither Conclusion I nor II is true. 

Answer (e) If both Conclusion I and II are true.

Directions (Question 19 - 23): In these questions, symbols ©, #, _, $, and @ are used with different meanings as follows: 

'A © B' means 'A is smaller than B's. 

'A # B' means 'A is either smaller than or equal to B'.

'A _ B' means 'A is greater than B's.

'A $ B' means 'A is either greater than or equal to B'.

'A @ B' means 'A is neither smaller than nor greater than B's 

Statements: V # S, S © L, L © J 

Conclusions: I. V © L II. S © J

Statements: M # R, R © J, J # H 

Conclusions: I. M # H II. R © H 

Statements: H $ F, F @ G, G_M 

Conclusions: I. H_M II. H_G 

Statements: R © J, J_T, T # L 

Conclusions: I. R @ T II. J @ L 

Statements: W @ T, T $ K, K_F 

Conclusions: I. W $ K II. W @ K

 Solution:

(e). Conclusion: V ⩽ S < L < J

20. V < L follow S < J follow

(b). M ⩽ R < J ⩽ H

M ⩽ H does not follow R < H follow

21. (a). H ⩾ F = G > M

H > M follow H > G not follow because of H ⩾ G.

22. (d). R < J < K ⩽ T

R = T relation cannot be established

J = L relation cannot be established

23. (a). W = T ⩾ K > F

W ⩾ K follow W = K not follow

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Direction (Question 24 - Question 25): In the question below, a related phrase is followed by a group of words. Select the group of words that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the original phrase.

24. At one’s wit's end.

1. Cannot say anything funny
2. Not able to think logically
3. Not able to work
4. Clarity of thought

Answer: (2) Not able to think logically

25. Gift of the gab

1. Clever at work
2. Flatter someone
3. Promise blatantly
4. Fluent at speaking

Answer: (4) Fluent at speaking

Question 26: Legal Principle:

1. The media cannot usurp the jurisdiction of the courts, which alone have the constitutional authority to decide the guilt/innocence of a person or decide on the content, quality, or width of any right available to any citizen/accused/suspect.
2. Media cannot be given the right to speculate on the outcomes of ongoing investigations, court proceedings, or criminal trials.

Facts: Naman Arora was a well-known prime-time journalist for a media outlet. Suraj, Dileep’s brother-in-law, pleaded against Naman, stating that the media outlets subjected Dileep to media trials while reporting on a murder plot case and a sexual assault case. Suraj alleged that the media channel is publishing fabricated allegations against the accused and their associates in the said cases.

As a result, he requested an injunction to prevent the media from covering the court proceedings. According to the petitioner, the top police officers investigating the case were leaking out materials allegedly collected during the investigation, including those from the in-camera trials. In spite of the orders of the Magistrate Court and Session Court concerning the publication of details pertaining to court proceedings, Reporter TV, as well as the other media portals, had been reporting these details.

Choose the best option as per the legal principle given above.

1. This clearly interferes with the administration of justice, besides causing prejudice to the petitioner.
2. Naman Arora is liable as he defamed the celebrity without having any jurisdiction.
3. Naman Arora is not liable because he has not passed any judgment; merely pointing out a possible outcome is his duty as a news anchor.
4. Naman Arora is liable as he leaked information that was supposed to be kept confidential.

Answer: (1) This clearly interferes with the administration of justice, besides causing prejudice to the petitioner.

Question 27: To maximize his gain, a theatre owner decides to reduce the price of tickets by 20%, and as a result of this, the sales of tickets increase by 40% if, as a result of these changes, he can increase his total collection by Rs. 8400, find his original price of a ticket if he initially used to sell 140 tickets?

1. 500
2. 1000
3. 240
4. 250

Answer: (1) 500

Explanation:

To find the price of one ticket

We will apply the formula of Net Change, i.e.

a + b + ab/100 = net change

If the price increases, then put it with a positive sign (+), but the price is decreasing in this case. That’s why we mentioned a negative sign (-).

So, it will be

-20 + 40 + (-20 + 40)/100

20 – 8 = 12

So, the net change is 12%

And the value of 12% is 8400

12% = 8400

1% = 700

100% = 70000

Price of one ticket = 70000/140 = 500

Conclusion

The MH CET Law question paper PDF is a valuable resource for law aspirants preparing for the entrance exam.

It gives them a better understanding of the exam pattern, the types of questions asked, and the overall difficulty level of the exam. You must practice MH CET 5 year law previous year papers and MH CET law 2023 question paper.

With the help of the MHCET Law PYQ, you can develop a comprehensive study plan and improve your chances of scoring well in the exam.