Important Constitution Questions for DU LLM 2025

Overview: Understanding the types of questions on next year's CUET PG exam will help you prepare better and improve your chances of getting into Delhi University's LLM program.

Understanding important questions for better preparation is important for this challenging exam with a broad syllabus.

This article provides important constitution questions for DU LLM 2025 to help you succeed in the CUET PG 2025 exam. Keep reading!

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Advantages of Reviewing Important Constitution Questions for DU LLM 2025

Reviewing important constitution questions for DU LLM provides numerous benefits that can significantly enhance your exam preparation. Here’s how:

• Identify Study Areas
  • Reviewing these questions helps you pinpoint specific topics and areas that require more attention and focused study.
  • This ensures a more targeted and efficient revision process.
• Assess Comprehension
  • By working through important constitution questions for DU LLM 2025, you can evaluate your understanding of the material.
  • This self-assessment helps ensure you are well-prepared to answer similar questions correctly on the actual exam.
• Practice Under Timed Conditions
  • Practicing with these questions under timed conditions allows you to simulate the actual exam environment.
  • This practice helps you manage your pace, ensuring you can complete all questions within the given time frame.
• Refresh Memory
  • Reviewing important constitution questions for DU LLM 2025 shortly before the exam helps refresh your memory.
  • This last-minute revision can boost your confidence, ensuring you are mentally prepared and less anxious on test day.

By incorporating these strategies into your study plan, you can maximize your chances of success on the CUET PG exam and secure a place in the DU LLM program.

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Important Constitutional Questions for DU LLM 2025

1. Which one of the following is not a decision on the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution of India and the procedure thereof?

• A. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
• B. Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
• C. Union of India v. Naveen Jindal
• D. Minerva Mills Ltd v. Union of India

Answer: C

2. Which of the following is correct?

• A. Part VIII of the Constitution deals with cooperative societies
• B. Part IX-A of the Constitution of India deals with Municipalities
• C. Part IX-B of the Constitution of India deals with panchayats
• D. Part X of the Constitution of India deals with languages

Answer: B

3. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India hold that the freedom of speech and expression through the medium of the internet is an integral part of Article 19(a) of the Constitution of India?

• A. Indian Express v. Union of India
• B. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
• C. Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India
• D. CPIO v. Shubhash Chandra Agarwal

Answer: C

4. Which of the following is a decision on the meaning of "state" as defined under Article 12 of the Constitution of India?

• A. Keshavan Madhava Menon v. State of Bombay
• B. Basheshar Nath v. CIT
• C. Charanjit Lal Chawudhary v. Union of India
• D. Pradeep Kumar Biswas v. Indian Institution of Chemical Biology

Answer: D

5. In which case did the Supreme Court of India hold that the right to life includes the right to live with human dignity and all that goes along with it, namely the bare necessities of life, such as adequate nutrition, clothing, shelter, and facilities for reading, writing, and expressing oneself in diverse forms, freely moving about and mixing and commingling with fellow human beings?

• A. A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
• B. Nandini Sundar v. State of Chhattisgarh
• C. Consumer Education and Research Center v. Union of India
• D. Francis Coralie Mullin v. UT of Delhi

Answer: D

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6. Which among the following cases led to the addition of clause (4) to Article 16 of the Constitution of India by the Constitution (1st Amendment) Act, 1951?

• A. M.R Balaji v. State of Mysore
• B. P. Rajendran v. State of Madras
• C. State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan
• D. State of Uttar Pradesh v. Pradip Tandon

Answer: C

7. Identify the correct statement(s) on the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India from the following.

• A. Article 131 lays down the exclusive and original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• B. Articles 132-136 of the Constitution deal with the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• C. Article 143 deals with the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, and C
2. A and B only
3. A only
4. C only

Answer: 1. A, B, and C

8. Government of NCT of Delhi v. Union of India 2018 (8) SCC 501, is a decision of the Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court on the interpretation of Article _____ of the Constitution.

• A. 368
• B. 301
• C. 243-A
• D. 239-AA

Answer: D

9. Which of the following cases relates to "a curative petition"?

• A. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
• B. Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra & Others
• C. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
• D. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India

Answer: B

10. Which among the following provisions of the Constitution of India maintains that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India “to safeguard public property and to abjure violence”?

• A. 51A(a)
• B. 51A(i)
• C. 51A(e)
• D. 51A(g)

Answer: C

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11. Originally, the Constitution of India had:

• A. 395 Articles, 22 Parts, 8 Schedules
• B. 359 Articles, 20 Parts, 8 Schedules
• C. 414 Articles, 24 Parts, 12 Schedules
• D. 141 Articles, 22 Parts, 12 Schedules

Answer: A

12. Which of the following is not true about the Preamble of the Constitution of India?

• A. Contains the enacting clause
• B. Declares the basic types of the Government
• C. Provides the source of the Constitution
• D. Provides Powers to Courts

Answer: D

13. The test of pith and substance of the subject matters and the ‘object of the legislation was irrelevant to the question of infringement of fundamental rights; the true test was the ‘direct effect’ of the impugned action on a particular fundamental right.

It was observed in the case of:

• A. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
• B. R.C. Cooper v. Union of India
• C. Bennett Coleman & Co. v. Union of India
• D. Sankari Prasad v. Union of India

Answer: C

14. The Supreme Court of India held that Article 14 of the Constitution of India embodies the principle of non-arbitrariness for the first time in:

• A. Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravradi
• B. A.K. Roy v. Union of India
• C. E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
• D. A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India

Answer: C

15. The Supreme Court of India, in National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014), held that transgender persons have the right to identify their gender as:

• A. Female only
• B. Either Male or Female
• C. Third Gender only
• D. Either Male, Female, or Third Gender

Answer: D

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16. Which case established the basic structure doctrine of the Constitution of India?

• A. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
• B. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
• C. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
• D. Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain

Answer: C

17. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the right to constitutional remedies?

• A. Article 19
• B. Article 21
• C. Article 32
• D. Article 226

Answer: C

18. Under which Article of the Constitution can the President of India proclaim a National Emergency?

• A. Article 352
• B. Article 356
• C. Article 360
• D. Article 365

Answer: A

19. The Directive Principles of State Policy are found in which part of the Constitution of India?

• A. Part III
• B. Part IV
• C. Part V
• D. Part VI

Answer: B

20. Which amendment to the Constitution of India added the words "Socialist" and "Secular" to the Preamble?

• A. 24th Amendment
• B. 42nd Amendment
• C. 44th Amendment
• D. 52nd Amendment

Answer: B

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What Does a Good Revision Plan Look Like?

A good revision plan is essential for success in exams like the DU LLM. Here are key elements to include in your plan:

• Break Down the Content:

  • Divide the syllabus into smaller, manageable sections.
  • Focus on one section at a time to avoid feeling overwhelmed.

• Create a Schedule:

  • Develop a study timetable and stick to it.
  • Avoid last-minute cramming to reduce stress and pressure.

• Focus on Challenging Areas:

  • Identify and concentrate on topics you find most difficult.
  • Ensure complete readiness by addressing these areas thoroughly.

• Practice Under Exam Conditions:

  • Answer important constitution questions for DU LLM 2025 in timed settings.
  • Familiarize yourself with the exam format and types of questions.

• Consistent Review:

  • Regularly revisit important constitution questions for DU LLM to reinforce your knowledge.
  • Use practice quizzes and simulated tests as part of your review.

• Balanced Study Plan:

  • Mix in breaks to rest and recharge during your revision sessions.
  • A well-balanced plan helps maintain productivity and focus.

By following these steps and consistently reviewing important constitution questions for DU LLM 2025, you can create an effective revision strategy.

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Key Takeaways

• Understand Exam Structure: Familiarize yourself with the types of questions in the CUET PG exam for better preparation.
• Review Important Questions: Focus on key constitutional questions to enhance your understanding and recall.
• Identify Study Areas: Use these questions to pinpoint areas that need more attention and targeted study.
• Practice Under Timed Conditions: Simulate exam conditions to manage your time effectively during the actual test.
• Consistent Review: Regularly revisit important questions to reinforce your knowledge and boost confidence.
• Effective Revision Plan: Break down the syllabus, create a study schedule, and focus on challenging areas for a balanced revision.
• Utilize Resources: Take advantage of free demo classes, downloadable practice questions, and detailed guides for comprehensive preparation.

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